Last night I had sex with a 23-year-old Caucasian female escort in Portland, OR. Her rates were fairly high. She offered sex without a condom, but I declined. Unfortunately, at some point the condom slipped off. We had unprotected sex for about 10 minutes and I ejaculated inside her. 

Worried about chlamydia and gonorrhea, I decided to self-treat immediately. First, I urinated. Then, about 10 minutes after the encounter, I gently squeezed the tip of my penis to expose the urethra, and repeatedly sprayed white vinegar into the hole. Then, I repeated two more times, about 5 and 10 minutes later. I was careful with this, and I know that the vinegar penetrated, because it burned quite badly each time.

My questions are: (i) how likely do you think it is that she had chlamydia or gonorrhea based on my description and today's data; and (ii) how likely is it that the vinegar treatment would have killed the bacteria in my urethra, if indeed they were present?

I'm embarrassed about the third question, but perhaps you know something about the mechanism by which these bacteria attach to and replicate inside the urethra, as well as their susceptibility to vinegar. My guess is that the treatment would have killed any bacteria because those bacteria would have been near the urethra opening at such a short time after the encounter, where they would have been exposed to the vinegar. Had I waited longer, the treatment would have had little chance of success. Am I right?

Thanks in advance for addressing this somewhat silly question.

Welcome to the Forum. I'll do my best to help although as you might imagine, there are no high quality studies regarding the use of vinegar for STD prevention.  In fact, it hurts me to think about it.  

As you know vinegar is a weak solution of acetic acid and as such might be toxic to some STIs but as I said above, there are no studies to help me provide an evidence-based answer to your question.  Personally, I would not count on it preventing infection.  OTOH, your risk for getting an STI from the exposure you describe is relatively low.  Most CSWs, including those who do not regularly use condoms, do not have STIs and even if your partner did, transmission of the most common STIs, gonorrhea and chlamydia only occurs about once out of every five exposures to infected partners.  My advice would be to test for the most common STIS (gonorrhea and chlamydia) any time more than 3 days after your exposure and to watch for symptoms which, as I said, are unlikely to occur since it is unlikely you were infected.  If you feel you need it, you could do a blood test for syphilis at four weeks and for HIV at six weeks for conclusive results although the chance of these infections is quite low.  

Regarding the 2nd question, again there is no research to tell us how long it takes for actual infection by organisms deposited on the urethra take to settle in and cause infection.  Presumably it is rather quick but just how long it takes is not known.  As I already said, the likelihood that you were infected is quite low,.  Similarly and related to your final question, it is not known how far and how quickly gonorrhea moves up the urethra following sexual contact leading to infection.

I wish I had more information.  Your questions are interesting but there are just no proven answers.  As I said above, the best course of action would be to seek testing.  I hope this is helpful.  EWH