[Question #4927] Follow up to #2750

24 months ago
This may be somewhat unorthodox but I asked a follow-up question on my original question (2750) some time ago and it was never answered. Would it be possible to get answer now?  Long story short, likelihood of me (male) getting oral gonorrhea or chlamydia, passing it to a partner, then getting it back via vaginal intercourse, such that epididymitis symptoms occur 1 year after the initial exposure?   Thanks. 
Edward W. Hook M.D.
Edward W. Hook M.D.
24 months ago

Welcome back to the Forum.  I am not sure of the circumstances which led to my failure to answer your follow-up question.  We do administratively close question threads after three responses (not the case in your prior thread) or after 30 days have passes since a response.  Irrespective, I'll address your concern now and apologize if I missed it earlier. 

 

To review, the question is, could you have gotten gonorrhea or chlamydia from a low risk encounter a year earlier (receipt of oral sex from a person who appeared to be low risk), had negative tests for urethral (but not pharyngeal) infection, passed an infection on to a female partner through cunnilingus who then would have transmitted the infection back to you through unprotected sex leading you to develop epididymitis without having clinical urethritis.  For all practical purposes, the answer is no.  While in medicine we have learned to never say never as unusual things do happen and we learn new information every day, the odds of the scenario you describe above being the case are 1 in tens of millions, in the same range of you being struck by a meteor falling from space today.  To recount why I am confident this did not occur: STIs from receipt of oral sex are relatively uncommon; if you had urethral infection it would have most likely been symptomatic; pharyngeal STIs tend to clear without therapy over the passage of time (weeks to months);  if you had asymptomatic urethral infection it would most likely have been detected by your testing; and if your epididymitis was due to an STI, your urinalysis would have shown signs of inflammation (WBCs).  Combining this with the low risk nature of the encounter, you should be confident that your epididymitis, if that is what you had, was not due to an STI encountered more than a year before.

 

I hope this comment is helpful.  I find myself wondering why you continue to worry this more than two years after your encounter with the other man and more than a year after your epididymitis.   EWH


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24 months ago
Thanks for the very prompt response, doctor.