March 2010, had vaginal irritation, some bumps but no open lesions or pain. Doctor tested me for Herpes.  IgG test results came back negative for both HSV 1 and 2 (<.90).  October 2018, had neck/back pain, fatigue, and within a couple days broke out with painful vaginal lesions. Tested positive for HSV 2. IgG results were 3.38 for HSV 2 (positive) and <.91 for HSV 1 (negative). Complete surprise because only partner I had been with since the last test was my husband. Was also my only partner in March 2010. Prior to that, was abstaining from sexual activity and hadn’t been with anyone else since October 2006. Since never had any herpes like symptoms prior to March 2010, thought I contracted it from my husband. Recalled that my husband had a cold sore on his mouth back in March 2010. Husband tested positive for HSV 1 but negative for HSV 2. Raised questions about when I contracted the virus. Have NOT cheated on my husband and he has been my only sexual partner since October 2006. How could I test negative for HSV 2 in 2010 and positive in 2018? I know you can have a false negative test result if you get tested too soon after contraction. However, with my husband testing negative for HSV 2, wouldn’t it mean that I would have already had the virus in 2010 from a prior exposure? Does your body automatically generate antibodies to the virus upon exposure/contraction, even if you don’t have an outbreak or any other symptoms? If so, why wouldn’t I have tested positive in March 2010?

Yes, I agree that the situation is confusing and doesn’t make sense.  That is why I am reaching out.  And yes, I have seen my husband’s results.  24.7 for HSV 1 (positive) and <.91 for HSV 2 (negative).  Due to another medical condition, my husband and I have had limited sexual activity over the last several years.  I think this has helped keep him from contracting HSV 2 from me.  

Can you please address this question from my initial post?  I haven’t been able to find the answer anywhere. -- Does your body automatically generate antibodies to the virus upon exposure/contraction, even if you don’t have an outbreak or any other symptoms?

 Also, everything I’ve read indicates that your initial outbreak is typically the worst one.  My most recent outbreak in October 2018 was far worse than the symptoms I experienced in March 2010.  It was definitely more indicative of an initial outbreak with the whole body symptoms.  Any explanation about why this would have occurred?

 Lastly, what are the chances of my husband contracting the virus from me? With/without taking a daily suppressive treatment?  With/without a condom?

 As you can imagine, this has really taken a toll on my marriage.  My husband has taken the diagnosis really hard and also questions whether I have been faithful.  I know I haven’t been with anyone else, but I too am at a loss about figuring out the different test results.  I appreciate any additional thoughts or explanations you can provide.  Thanks