[Question #5377] HPV and latency period

22 months ago
Sir/Ma’am:  I’ve been in a long term marriage spanning 40+ years. Some 5 yrs into this marriage my partner had a brief affair, from which I contracted herpes. Over the next decades at various times (roughly every 2-3 yrs) I’d develop a painful pimple around my groin area, usually at the base of my penis or on scrotum. They looked like pimples and when popped would disappear within a wk or so, returning at various intervals mentioned above. The wife on occasion would also have these symptoms. Both the wife and myself occasionally develops cold sores each year, but we typically don’t let it affect our sex life, which often includes oral sex. She had a total hysterectomy 18 months ago and tested positive for HPV some 12 months ago (don’t know if HPV1 or 2). She would also sometimes develop what the Dr. called vaginitis. What is the probability that the original herpes infection contracted some 40yrs ago has reappeared and is the cause of these symptoms over the years as well as her latest diagnosis, or is more likely the conclusion a 3rd party introduced this?  Is it also possible that due to our frequent practice of oral sex that this could be the cause? I’ve read as much as I can on the subject and I know there’s lots of conflicting conclusions based on old info. Any info you can provide is greatly appreciated. 

 


Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
22 months ago
I think we need some clarification here - was she diagnosed with HSV or HPV?  They are very different viruses.  Herpes is HSV and the human papilloma virus is HPV.  Both can be sexually transmitted.
How were you and your wife initially diagnosed with herpes?  Swab test, blood antibody test?

Terri
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22 months ago
Ma'am:  She was told she was positive for HPV infection. She never had an abnormal Pap smear in over 40 yrs and neither of us have ever been tested for herpes/HPV. It was some months after her hysterectomy when she was having some issues (below) that they tested and told her she was HPV positive. From the brief affair mentioned below I developed kidney pain, nausea, chills/fever and was diagnosed as a UTI. I was 21 and the Dr. told me the wife needed to be seen etc...I was prescribed ampicillin for 10 day or 2 weeks with 2-3 follow-ups. This was all 40 yrs ago. Coinciding with this affair we both developed the conditions mentioned below. I assumed she contracted some type of infection and passed it on to me. I've read so much conflicting info I'm more confused than when I started. Are the flare-ups mentioned below from the cold sores we both suffered and spread to our genitals or something else? Thanks for your clarification.
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
22 months ago
There are some confusing things here:  the first is why anyone would test her for HPV if she is post hysterectomy.  She would have no cervix to test, and that's where they look for HPV.  do you know if it was high risk or low risk HPV?  Can you get a copy of the lab report and share that with me? I'm just very confused about why anyone would test for HPV In this situation and want to be certain we are talking about the same thing here.
Would you please let me know how you were diagnosed with herpes?  Blood test, swab test? Do you know if you/she has HSV 1 or HSV 2 genitally?  If you had well established cold sore history, it is highly unlikely that has anything at all to do with a new genital infection.  However, it is possible that you could have given her HSV 1 genital infection from having cold sores and giving her oral sex IF she didn't have cold sores already.
I'm confused a bit by your post and look forward to clarification

Terri

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