My questions are pretty simple.  My doctor said it is possible the first diagnosis was wrong and may have been a tag is this possible?

And if it was a lesion given the time frame of no reoccurrence do I need to let future partners know about this when unprotected sex becomes part of our relationship?  I’ve been told At this point given the history it’s not transmittable.   Is that accurate?  

Thanks so much for your time and effort and answering my question!

I'm afraid I can't resolve the dilemma as to whether or not the lesion removed was a wart. On one hand, a microscopic diagnosis of condyloma usually is straightforward and accurate. And it's certainly possible for the lab analysis to miss HPV (which is a separate test from microscopy). OTOH, genital warts usually are multiple; single warts can occur, but not very commonly. On balance, I'm inclined to trust the histology (i.e. microscopic diagnosis) of condyloma, i.e. wart. But I can't say your doctor is wrong -- at this point, there's simply no way to know with certainty.

However, at this point it doesn't matter; I agree with the important part of your doctor's advice. With no recurrence for 3 years, you can be confident the problem is gone and not transmissible, and that you are unlikely to have a future recurrence. 

My last thought is that you should consider getting vaccinated against HPV. You don't say your age, but if under 26 for sure you should consider it. Vaccination will protect you from the 9 HPV types that cause 90% of important health problems (warts, pre-cancer, and cancer) -- not counting any of those types with which you have already been infected. But with or without vaccination, you can go forward with no serious worries about HPV and warts.

I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD