[Question #6110] Herpes question
70 months ago
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Dear Experts,
I think I can keep things much more streamlined if I skip the story and ask my questions in hypothetical terms. So here goes:
Let’s say a person acquires oral AND genital HSV2 during the same sexual encounter. As would be expected, this person get’s genital symptoms which is what prompts him to get tested.
Am I correct that it would be highly unusual (or maybe even unheard of) for a bout of visible oral symptoms to occur more than a year later? My understanding is that those people with HSV2 in their mouth and genitals are almost never visibly symptomatic in their mouth, and if any oral symptoms did occur, they would do so within days or a few weeks after the initial acquisition of the virus.
My other question: If a person has HSV2 genitally, does that act like a vaccine against getting oral HSV2 from a different partner later on? Or can they still get oral HSV2 from a subsequent partner. If they can, is it likely to be symptomatic? Or will the prior genital infection kinda lessen the likelihood of visible symptoms?
Thanks!
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Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
70 months ago
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70 months ago
|
70 months ago
|
![]() |
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
70 months ago
|
70 months ago
|
![]() |
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
70 months ago
|
70 months ago
|
![]() |
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
70 months ago
|