I started reading about people who couldn't get UTI's diagnosed, and that some new test called (DNA NGS/DNA Next generation sequency) i bought the test over sea, and got it send to me, took it, and in my 3 years with this stupid pain, i've never had any test show anything, i then got the test back and it showed (85% stapholycoccus saprothyticus. and 13% stapholycoccus epidermis) when i saw this i litterally felt to the ground and broke down, finally i got answers, but after that i went to the doctors they didnt really know what to do and what this bacteria was, then i got in contact with an urologist, he didnt really know either, but prescribed me (Dicloxacillin) for 2 weeks, sadly, that didnt work at all, and i felt straight back into deep depression. Right now im waiting for a call back in about 3 weeks to the hospital, but i have some questions that i hope you can answer that apparently no doctor i met here could answer. Ohh and another thing, i wanted to take a test at the hospital in my region before the medicin, but the test came back without anything, which was a huge letdown aswell.

This whole business is complex and I imagine other questions along these lines will come up on the forum. So I'm using this as an opportunity for a blog-like reply to use in the future, about DNA next-generation sequencing (NGS) and the urinary tract. It might be more than you're expecting, but please bear with me. Much of this is based on a brand new scholarly review -- so new that so far it has only been e-published ahead of print, with the printed version coming out in a major journal (Journal of Clinical Microbiology) sometime in the next few months. It's by one a research group experienced in DNA next generation sequencing (NGS):  https://jcm.asm.org/content/early/2019/10/10/JCM.00204-19 

I haven't read your previous threads with Dr. Hook in detail, but in scanning them, and from the information you provide in yor question, I agree with Dr. Hook in being confident your problem is not due to any STD. I'll also point out that epididymitis does not cause bilateral testicular pain without obvious testicular tenderness and swelling. And epididymitis is not know to last for years, even without treatment. Your symptoms seem much more consistent with CPPS, mentioned above -- previously called nonspecific or nonbacterial prostatitis. Consider googling CPPS (spell it out) for more information. Good places to start are the quite good Wikipedia article and information you can find from the Stanford University Department of Urology. CPPS is not believed to be due to infection, and it does not respond to antibiotics of any kind. (I hope it won't be too long that CPPS will be studied with NGS.) The good new about CPPS is that no matter how severe the pain or discomfort, it has never been know to lead to anything serious:  no cancer, infertility, or health problems of any kind in affected men's sex partners. It's an issue of comfort, not disease.

That's the best I can do. I hope the information is helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD

I did read alot about CPPS last year but i find my symptoms to be a bacterial problem, i just wanna point out that i don't have bileteral pain either, when i got this in 2017 i got it in the left testicle, but it got cured after a round of antibiotics (Doxycycline) if  i remember correctly then after a month i got it back but it was in the right side this time, all this time i had unprotected sex with my girlfriend that im still with now, so i naturally thought that okay since it came back in the otherside it must have been cured and given back to me, i agree with you that this is not a "Classic" STI case. I have some questions i've been thinking about the last couple days, i hope you wanna answer them

Do you think i could have gotten this "thing" from my sexual exposure (unprotected vaginal sex) with another girl 2 months before the pain started in 2017, like could this just be a bacteria that isn't classified as STI such as chlamydia, mycoplasma etc.. but would it be possible that, that was what gave me this - and if yes would that explain why it can't be cured cus my GF has it aswell (Keep in mind i know this is not a STI like chlamydia and such - but more like a natural bacteria that my body just couldn't handle)

about CPPS i have a clear discharge aswell, that makes my urethra shut in the morning, which i find more to the bacterial side of things than pelvic problems, i have tried pelvic therapy though, and found some relief, but it was hard for me to tell if the relief was from me being tight as hell cus i walk around with pain, or if the pain actually did fade abit from it, gonna give it another try, since my uncles wife has a chiropractor place so i can easily get started up again.

I've been really open about my fear for what this might be to my GF, and she tells me she has no symptoms and never had, but i still can't connect the dots - like how i was cured first and then it came back in the otherside, and why can't it be cured again. 

Thanks for the nice reply about the tests and stuff earlier though. And like always, im happy i could come in here and talk about this these are just some questions i can't find answers on, but you might.

"I did read alot about CPPS last year but i find my symptoms to be a bacterial problem, i just wanna point out that i don't have bileteral pain...." Thanks for clarifying the story. It sounds like you indeed had epididymitis. Many cases are not due to STD; indeed, if you're over 35 years old, the chance of an STD cause was very low. OTOH, the timing of your initial episode and its response to doxycycline suggests you may have had sexually acquired epididymitis at that time, perhaps with false negative tests for chlamydia and gonorrhea. But that doesn't imply a continuing infection, STD or otherwise. When any body part is injured, whether from trauma, infection, or anything else, it is common for pain or signs of inflammation to continue long afterward. Think of the sprained ankle that still hurts long after it has healed by all objective criteria. Perhaps something like this, rather than CPPS, explains your problem. Whether or not you had an initial STD or other bacterial infection, I doubt that's the current problem.

As for a bit of clear urethral discharge in the morning, this isn't necessarily abnormal. Most men have this from time to time, some more than others. The usual explanation is pre-ejaculate fluid remaining from natural nocturnal erections, which occur a few times a night in most men, most often during dream sleep. And completely clear discharge rarely indicates infection.

Men with nonsexually acquired epididymitis, CPPS, prostatitis, or anything else are not at increased risk for any serious health problem:  no infertility, cancer, urethral stricture, or other serious outcomes. And they carry no danger at all for their sex partners. Indeed, many experts advise increased sexual activity, believing it might help improve symptoms. You should not be at all concerned about giving anything to your girlfriend. Your best approach may be to just live with the discomfort, secure in the knowledge that you have symptoms but not necessarily any disease, and that nothing bad will happen.

And no, frequency of sex, no matter how many partners, could not cause anything like this (except maybe symptoms attributable to anxiety or guilt).---