[Question #6948] Chlamydia question

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63 months ago
49 yo male had incident about a year and a half ago, maybe 2 years. Massage place, woman jumped on top of me after massage grinding on me genital to genital asking if I want anything else, which i said no thanks. 9 months or so later developed prostatitis took doxycycline  1 a day for 20 days. Eventually improved but still some issues.  
Went to another urologist later with on going issues and tested me for everything  Including all STDs and was negative.
Flash forward to today at least a year and a half ago, my wife (42 yo) is having severe UTI's type symtoms but no nitrates on home test. My understanding  is  chlamydia symtoms in females are almost identical. Frequent urination with little coming out, pain in lower ab and some burning when urinating.
Is it possible I picked up something, was  cured from doxy and my wife has had this all this time and is just now having symptoms but I am somehow immune from getting it back from her? 
I would t even think of this except for the consistent lack of Nitrates with strong uti symtoms.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
63 months ago

Welcome to the Forum and thanks for your question.  I'll be pleased to comment.  Apparently there was no penetration from the encounter you describe. If that is the case, there is no risk for STI or any sort.  Chlamydia and similar STIs are transmitted only through penetrative sexual encounters. 

I suspect that both your prostatitis and your wife's current problems are coincidental and NOT related in any way to the encounter you describe.  Mis-perceptions about prostatitis being an STI are widespread and incorrect.  Prostatitis is NOT a complication of STI.  Similarly, while chlamydia can mimic the signs and symptoms of a UTI, most UTIs present in the manner you describe and there is nothing you have mentioned which raises any concerns that you might have given your wife chlamydia which is now mimicking an UTI.  I would not be the least bit worried that you had an STI which you passed to your wife as a result of the dalliance that you describe.  I see no need for testing at this time.

I hope that this information is helpful.  EWH

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63 months ago
Thanks for the fast reply.  To satisfy my curiosity and solidify my desision to open this can of worms with my wife, is it possible for chlamydia so be asymptomatic for well over a year and a half and then start showing symtoms? When I look reputable health sites like mayo, I see sti come up as a common reason for UTI like symtoms with no nitrites, only leukocytes. And this is bad, she cant go 10 minutes with out peeing and lower ab pain.
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
63 months ago
Her symptoms really do not sound typical of chlamydia but indeed, chlamydial infections can be asymptomatic.  They also tend to "clear" (self-cure) over time but after a year and a half, most people would have cured (no precise numbers available) I think it is VERY unlikely that her current symptoms are due to chlamydia.  Don't misinterpret what you see on the internet.  EWH
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