[Question #7452] High Risk HPV Positive after decades
56 months ago
|
![]() |
Edward W. Hook M.D.
56 months ago
|
Welcome to our forum and thanks for your question. Let me back into my response, providing you with the bottom line comments first, followed by an explanation.
This finding is NOT an indication of infidelity in your relationship.
So why did this happen and what does it mean? Our understanding of the course of HPV infections continues to evolve. You and your husband had other partners prior to marriage. Thus on a purely statistical basis, it is more likely than not that you both had HPV prior to marriage which, based on your subsequent PAP smear and HPV results, "resolved" as is the case in the vast majority of HPV infections. However, more recent research now shows that in persons with resolved HPV infection there are occasional episodes of "shedding" in which the virus replicates and then again becomes quiescent. This fact, combined with the very, very high sensitivity of currently available HPV tests means that from time-to-time, testing will detect this transient re-activation. I suspect this is what happened in your situation. The fact that your follow-up test was negative is totally consistent with this. My advice is to not use this test result as evidence of infidelity and to move forward with your routine sexual health check ups.
I hope this information is helpful. If this is unclear, please feel free to use your up to two follow-ups for clarification. EWH
56 months ago
|
![]() |
Edward W. Hook M.D.
56 months ago
|