Welcome to the Forum. Thanks for your question.  I'll be glad to comment.  Your doctor is correct- among penetrative sexual activities, receipt of oral sex is a biologically inefficient process.  Further, most persons do not have STIs, including oral STIs. Oral STIs are less common than genital infections and when an individual is exposed to a partner with an oral STI, they are less likely to become infected than if they had be genitally exposed to a partner with a genital STI.   There is no known risk for acquisition of HIV from receipt of oral sex.  Gonorrhea, chlamydia and NGU all can result in receipt of oral sex but the cefixime and azithromycin you took would prevent those infections if you were exposed.  These medicines would also prevent development of syphilis.  Thus, between your low risk for infection, the medications you took, and the absence of symptoms, it is safe to assume that you did not acquire an STI from the exposure you describe.  I see no reason for continuing concern, no need for testing of any sort, and no reason to abstain from unprotected sex with your regular partner.

I hope that this information is helpful.  EWH

 This is a repetitive question.  As I said above, you can be confident that you did not give your wife an STI.

This is my third reply to your questions.  Therefore, as per Forum Guidelines, this thread will now be closed.  Take care. Please don't worry.  EWH