[Question #7620] HSV2 + question

3 months ago
hi last December, 2020, I found out that my husband of 20 years has been cheating on me with escorts and his co worker for the last 4 years. I immediately got a full STD panel and my HSV1 IGG was 42.40 (which I always had since age 9), came back positive as to be expected and my HSV2 IGG test came back high with an index of 10.50. I never had HSV2 and never had an outbreak or symptom. He also got tested and his HSV1 IGG (which he got from me) is positive with an index of 34.30 but his HSV2  IGG was less than .91 so his doctor said he is negative. But I am not the one who has been cheating and he was. Could he have passed onto me HSV2 by performing oral sex on his escorts and mistress and then have oral sex with me or can you only get HSV2 through intercourse? 

He said he always wore a condom to protect himself but he also performed oral sex on his lovers. I am not sure if you can get HSV2 from performing oral sex on your partner after being with another person who has HSV2. I would love to know if this is how I tested positive and he didn't since he wore a condom. Is it possible the HSV2 virus was in his saliva ( can it live in your mouth) when he had oral sex with me? 

I have never cheated on him and have only been with him for him last 20 years. I have never had an outbreak nor has he. How is it possible that my HSV2 results have this high number? Does my high number mean that I have had this virus for a long time or does it mean it is a recent exposure? Should I get retested in 3 months? I also read about the Western Blot HSV test, do you recommend we both get that? we also did the HSV2 IGM and are both negative. I am so upset and would love some insight about my situation. many thanks
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
3 months ago
Your number does indicate that this is an old infection, not a new one and it is genital with 95% certainty.  You could have had this for years if you have had sex with other people before you married your husband.   The IgM test is useless and should not have been done.  The western blot might be helpful for your husband, given that the IgG test misses 8% of HSV 2 when compared to the blot.  Higher positive index values like yours are rarely false positives, but given your situation, you could also do the blot for certainty.
I think the scenario where he gave oral sex to a sex worker or other partner and then gave it to you by giving you oral sex is highly unlikely.  HSV 2 does not like the oral area and is not often found there and when there, is very unlikely to be given off from the mouth much less transferred to your genitals.

I know there is incredibly irony in this picture for you - I can totally understand your distress.  Please let me know what other questions you may have.

Terri
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3 months ago
Thank you Terri for your reply,
 so I have had genital herpes for a long time over 20 years old since that was the last time I was with anyone else and my husband of 20 years never got it? we never had any symptoms or outbreaks ? I guess this is so strange for me to know as I never knew. perhaps my herpes is non symptomatic? I'm going to say then that he did not give it to me. that's a hard one for me to believe given my sad circumstances and also since his HSV2 IGG test is not at zero, he only got tested in July 2020 and again last month. Is it possible to have genital herpes and never have any symptoms or outbreaks? thanks again
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
Terri Warren, RN, Nurse Practitioner
3 months ago
Unless your test is a false positive (possible) or his IgG is a false negative (which it is 8% of the time), then yes, you've had it a while.  I can't say it if weeks, months or years, but it certainly isn't days or even a couple of weeks.  Another possibility is that he tested too soon after a sexual encounter to reflect that persons' input into the test results.  But it seems highly unlikely to me that you have a 10.+ and he's negative (and anything under 0.91 is negative, regardless of the score).  That doesn't make much sense to me.  the other possibility and it is remote, that he got infected, realized it, and started taking daily antiviral medicine since he was infected which would cause his test to be falsely negative but since it doesn't perfectly prevent transmission, that he infected you but is not yet showing antibody himself.  These are both rather remote possibilities.

Terri
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