I moved on after the doctor advise and few months later I started dating my current wife who also started with a tingling sensation on her vagina.

Again, I move on and tought that maybe all my symptoms was caused by herpes (Stupid of me I never made a full STD panel). Now my wife is pregnant and all this came back to my head make me thinking that maybe we have Syphilis. A month ago I requested a Syphilis test which was negative (RPR and TPHA) and few days ago another EIA test that was also negative. 

As the exposure was long time ago, Im now terrified that maybe those test are not 100% accurate. So please let me ask you a couple of questions.

1. As I took Azythromycin right after my first symptom, could this have masked a possible syphilis chancre?

2. RPR, TPHA and EIA negative test after 5 years are totally conclusive? 

3. My wife also got a negative EIA test during prenatal check up, should she also go for the RPR + TPHA to be 100% she doesn´t have syphilis? 

I'm sorry you had those very umpleasant experiences. It is indeed likely you had no STD after the sexual exposure you have described:  penile pain alone (without discharge) is not a common STD symptom, and even though you didn't have a careful and proper medical evaluation at the time, your urinalysis probably would have been abnormal if you had an active infection. And your symptoms over the next several months were not typical STD symptoms, and apparently the ceftriaxone (CEF-3)  and doxycycline (Bronmycin) had no clear benefit. And the symptoms you report also are not consistent with genital herpes. At this distant time since onset, I really can't comment on the causes of your symptoms, but it is absolutely certain that you currnelty have no known STD from the sexaul event described. 

You did not make a mistake by not having a "full STD panel". But the tests you have had are entirely reliable.

Those comments start toa nswer your specific quesitons, but to be explicit and assure no misunderstanding:

1) Some syphilis strains are resistant to azithromycin. If exposed to such a strain, you would have developed syphilis. But most strains are fully susceptible to azithromycin, and taking that within a few days of exposure definitely would have aborted an infection -- i.e. it would have prevented syphilis from taking hold. But later you were treated with ceftriaxone and doxycycline:  those treatments (especially doxycycline) definitely would have cured syphilis if you had been infected. But it was the proved that didn't happen, because...

2) ...these blood tests are 100% proof you do not have syphilis and never did, and your wife's engative EIA also shows for sure she is not infected. Once someone has syphilis, the RPR may become negative over time, but the TPHA and EIA remain positive for life. Those results are 100% conclusive. 

3) Your wife does not need and should not have any further syphilis tests.

So no wories about syphils at all. But please let me know if anything remains unclear. Best wishes to you and your wife for a successful pregnancy and for your growing family.

HHH, MD