[Question #7807] Do I have an infection?

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52 months ago

Hi,


Around 2 years and 3 months ago, I (male) had about 20/30 minutes of unprotected vaginal and oral sex and 10 seconds of anal sex with just the tip with a female. The next day she informed me that she had found out from a regular partner of hers that he had chlamydia, and so she likely did as well. She got a test done a few days later which confirmed she had chlamydia.


I got tested via a urine test 2 days after the sex, which was probably too early but I was panicking as I had a regular partner (female) of 3 years and it’s the only time I’ve done something like this. That test came back negative for chlamydia and gonorrhea.


I went to the clinic a couple days after that who gave me some amoxicillin, and I took that straight away for the next week. I was planning on avoiding sex with my regular partner for the week, however after 4.5 days of taking the amoxicillin she gave me some oral sex. It was brief, maybe 1 minute total, and I did not ejaculate in her mouth.


A week and a half after the initial sex, I went to another clinic to get another test done, again, due to being anxious. He said he saw some irritation in the urethra, told me to stop checking my penis myself (which I had been doing a lot), did a swab and urine test but found no STIs. He gave me Doxycycline which I took for a week.


Fast forward to 2 months ago. Same partner. I started needing to pee frequently, it burning when I did, and sometimes a sharp pain in the tube between my testicles and anus. I also had a feeling of urine being stuck in the tip of my penis, especially in the morning. No discharge on initial sight, but I could milk some to the top so it was visible in the pee hole (maybe a see/through white colour but hard to tell as there was not much of it).

I went to the doctors, who gave me nitrofurantoin, did a urine test for signs of UTI, which came back negative.


I then thought about how I’d been having testicle pain for about 6 months. Nothing too bad, only at night. I was getting back ache that would move to my groin and testicles when I lay down, and I assumed it was the result of a bad mattress as it wasn’t a big pain, more of a niggling ache that went when I readjusted. I also thought how I had been getting a cold penis sometimes after urinating, and my foreskin would feel a bit tingly/cold.


I was still getting symptoms after the nitrofurantoin so I then did an STI test a week later which was delivered in the post (due to Covid). The weird thing for this test was that instead of peeing straight into the tube, it asked you to pee into a bag and then pour the urine into the tube. I was only supposed to fill the bag up half way, but I filled it to the top, and then poured it into the tube.


After the test I started taking some doxycycline that I got from a pharmacy (again, stupid) and my symptoms died down. Then after a couple weeks, I had a few beers one night and the next day it was painful to pee again (but not as much frequency). At this point I was inspecting my penis nearly constantly, the tip always seemed a bit moist (with a light shined on it.)


A month back my partner started complaining of some upper flank pain just under the back of her rib cage. Only when she rotated her back, not painful enough to stop her doing exercise.


More recently she has been having pain when urinating, described it as the pain you get when you hold in a pee for too long, with pain in the bladder/pelvic area upon voiding and also cloudy/smelly urine.


Subsequently, I’ve done a full STI test with the lesser known STIs, all negative. An ultrasound on my testicles as the pain felt like it got worse. Nothing found. I’ve done a prostate exam, which the doctor said it could be prostatitis and prescribed me ciprofloxacin which I am taking now, but it felt like he was going off what I was saying rather than the exam itself.


My symptoms have died down since, apart from the anxiety and lack of sleep of course.


I’ve encouraged my partner to get tested but the doctors are understandably slow to see people due to Covid and they don’t follow up on consultations and she isn’t following up either.


My question is how likely is it that I had an STI originally, gave it to my partner via oral  after 4.5 days of antibiotics and we both now have it?


Why are we both experiencing symptoms now at the same time?


Did I mess up the postal STI test by peeing too much in the bag before pouring into the tube or by having already taken nitrofurantoin?


We used a new lube a couple months ago, never used lube before, not spermicide based, but that also wouldn’t account for the months before that when I had testicle ache and tingling pee hole.


Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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Edward W. Hook M.D.
52 months ago
Welcome to our Forum.  It appears that you may have written your questions as a separate document and then posted it in place as it is more than twice as long as permitted on the Forum.  Please re-write your questions more succinctly and I will be happy to address them.  You should be able to express your concerns in about 250 words, not more than 900.  EWH---
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52 months ago

2 years ago, I (male) had unprotected vaginal/oral sex & 10 seconds of anal sex with female. She had chlamydia.

2 days after: I tested for chlamydia/gonorrhoea - negative

4 days after - took amoxicillin

4.5 days after the amoxicillin received 1 minute of oral from regular partner- did not ejaculate in her mouth

Week and half after initial sex - took another test  (swab and urine) for chlamydia/gonorrhoea - negative. Doctor prescribed Doxycycline.


Since roughly 6 months before today - I’ve been having mild testicle ache for about 6 months at night in bed. Both testicles, lower back/groin ache. Thought it was bad mattress. Had also been getting a cold penis sometimes after urinating, and my foreskin would feel a bit tingly/cold.


2 months ago from today. 

I started needing to pee frequently, burning when I did, sometimes a sharp pain in the tube between my testicles and anus. Also a feeling of urine being stuck in the tip of my penis, especially in the morning. No discharge on initial sight, but I could milk some to the top so it was visible in the pee hole (maybe a see/through white colour but hard to tell as there was not much of it).


Doctor guessed UTI and prescribed nitrofurantoin. UTI test negative.


Still symptoms. Did STI test for chlamydia/gonorrhoea. Wasn’t initial catch of urine as had to pee in a bag and pour into tube. Negative result.


Took doxycycline, symptoms died down. Drank alcohol, symptoms flared back up.


A month back my partner started complaining of some upper flank pain just under the back of her rib cage. Only when she rotated her back, not painful enough to stop her doing exercise.


More recently she has been having pain when urinating, described it as the pain you get when you hold in a pee for too long, with pain in the bladder/pelvic area upon voiding and also cloudy/smelly urine.


I’ve now done full STI test, ultrasound on testicles, all negative.


Did prostate exam, doctor prescribed me ciprofloxacin for possible prostatitis. Symptoms have died down but flare up again.


Partner has done home UTI dip test. Negative.


How likely is it that I had an STI originally, gave it to my partner via oral  after 4.5 days of antibiotics and we both now are showing urinary symptoms 2 years later?


Did I mess up the STI test by peeing too much in the bag before pouring into the tube or by having already taken nitrofurantoin?

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Edward W. Hook M.D.
52 months ago
Thanks for your more concise question.  It is important for me to point out that most single unprotected exposures to partners with STIs, including gonorrhea and chlamydia do not result in infection.  In your case, your repeated testing since your exposure 2 years ago has never been positive.  If you had been infected, those tests would have been positive.  Further, since that exposure you have been treated on at least two occasions with doxycycline, the preferred therapy for chlamydial infection which would have eradicated a chlamydial infection if present.  In addition, chlamydia only very rarely infects the throat so it was particularly unlikely that your throat was infected by performance of oral sex on your casual partner two years ago.  

Putting all of this together, there is virtually no chance that you have active chlamydial infection of that the symptoms your partner is experiencing is due to chlamydia acquired by your misstep two years ago.  My suspicion that your current symptoms are related to your prostatitis which can be very challenging to treat and often requires prolonged and repeated therapies.  Prostatitis is not an STI.

I would not worry that your improper specimen collection or the nitrofurantoin negatively impacted the accuracy of your tests. 

I suspect your partner's symptoms are not related in any way to an STI that you acquired two years ago and have transmitted to her.

I hope that this information is helpful.  EWH
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52 months ago
Thank you for your answer. 

When you say “In addition, chlamydia only very rarely infects the throat so it was particularly unlikely that your throat was infected by performance of oral sex on your casual partner two years ago.”  to clarify, my regular partner gave me oral sex 4.5 days after I had oral/vaginal sex with the casual partner. Does that make a difference to your prognosis?

What would you suppose the reason would be for my partner and I both experiencing stronger symptoms at about the same time recently?


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Edward W. Hook M.D.
52 months ago
Thank you for the clarification. However, it does not change my assessment. There is no evidence that you had chlamydial infection. Further even if you did, performance of oral sex on you would be unlikely to lead to infection on the part of your partner. EWH---
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52 months ago
Thank you.

From my partner’s recent symptoms; mild kidney pain, cloudy/smelly urine, dysuria; I would assume she has a UTI. My question is what would lead to me having similar symptoms at the same time?
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
52 months ago
No, it would be most unusual for you to have similar symptoms to that if your partner if she has a urinary tract infection.  Further, other than perhaps the dysuria the symptoms you describe or not those of an STI in women.  EWH ---
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52 months ago
So I guess my question is, why are we both suddenly showing signs of an infection?

If it’s a dormant STI, is it likely we would both suddenly start showing symptoms at the same time?

And if it’s a new infection surely it would have shown up on one of the STI/UTI tests I’ve done?
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Edward W. Hook M.D.
52 months ago
This is a repetitive questions and the answers are not going to change change.  As I have already informed you there is no reason to think that your symptoms and your partner’s similar symptoms are anything but coincidental. Similarly the there is no evidence whatsoever to suggest that you have an STI acquired more than two years ago which you have now transmitted. My advice is for you and your partner each to work with your own doctors to sort out the causes.

We provide up to three responses to each client’s questions. This is my fourth response to your questions. This thread will be closed shortly without further response. I wish you the best. Look for something other than STI’s as the cause of your symptoms. EWH
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