Some context for my questions: 

I have had hsv1 for 7-8 years now, with outbreaks always appearing in my nostrils. Prior to outbreaks I feel a slight pain in the corner of my eye preceeded by numbness/a burning sensation in the nose where the outbreaks appear. These symptoms usually occur 24 hours before the outbreak.

My girlfriend has no history of cold sores as she recalls. 

This weekend i performed oral sex on her, and at the time I did not notice the pain in my eye/tenderness in nose. However, shortly after (it may have been a couple of hours, but im not sure if this already had begun when I performed the oral on her) I noticed the symptoms starting to appear. Around 24 hours later my nose turnet slightly red, with some sored appearing on the inside of the left nostril.

Im always conscious of not touching her genital area with my nose, but Ive read on your forums that shedding may still appear from the mouth even if thats not the area of outbreaks.

So:

1. if my outbreaks always are in my nose and I gave her oral slightly before or just as the pain/prodrome in my eye/nose started, and i did not touch her genitals with my nose, is it likely that I may have given her genital hsv1?

2. do prodromes increase shedding from all the possible shedding areas of the face, or could it be that the increased shedding only occured in my nose?

3. may I be in the clear since this was early in the prodrome stages and the amount of virus was still low (if i was shedding from the mouth). As I stated, the tenderness was still mostly in the corner of my eye and Ive never had any symptoms from my mouth.

4. when i notice the pain in my eye/face is the amount of virus already high in my nose?

5. is it likely that i have the virus on my lips when i have an outbreak in my nose?