Sir, I went to the spa, where while massaging the lady masseuse was sitting on top of me, I was wearing the cotton brief and condom underneath(because, I was afraid/anxious of any accidental contact with vaginal fluid and whatsoever ). She was rubbing her vaginal region on my Penile region(She was completely dressed ).

After a while she suddenly stood up and said she had a discharge and her vaginal fluid came outside via jeans and I have seen her crotch wet.

I felt uncomfortable and I got up, dressed and came back home. After around 20 minutes when I went to washroom at my home, I saw my condom has slipped and filled with little pre seminal fluid. Now my doubt is when her vaginal fluid came out and if my underwear/brief might became wet with that fluid, considering she might be infected with HIV and she is not on ART medication, 1.what are my risk of acquisition of HIV ?

2. I am worried because my brief(if became wet with her vaginal fluid and in a way back to home my condom also slipped inside the underwear), penis might have came in contact with vaginal smearing and I am uncircumcised,  Does it possess any Practical or Theoretical risk ?

3.I have taken 4th gen Ag/Ab test (CMIA) on 28th day, 40th day and 44th day all negative. I know CDC and BAASH have said 45 days is the window period for 4th gen test I have miscounted the days and took it on 44th day(actually 43.5 days) . Are these tests conclusive with 100% certainty ?

4. IF in any hypothetical situation any one had anal sex with known HIV partner who's not on medication and receive 4th gen ag/ab test negative at 44 days....then also it would be certainly negative and don't need any further tests? My this particular ques is stupid, I know but I just wanted to know that 45 days and 44 or 43 days made any difference ?

1. There was no risk of HIV from this event. HIV cannot be transmitted through clothing.

2. Little or no theoretical risk and for sure no practical risk.

3,4. These two questions ask the same thing, using different words. The time to conclusive testing isn't all that precise. There is no difference in test reliability between 40 and 45 days after the last exposure. Your negative test results prove 100% you were not infected.

5. The official data analyzed by CDC say 45 days, but because there is no measurable difference between test reliability at that time versus 3 days earlier (42 days, i.e. 6 weeks), we and many other experts advise 6 weeks because it is a standard interval and easy to remember. None of this has anything to do with the former 90 day advise, which applies to earlier HIV tests no longer in use.

Let me know if anything isn't clear -- but please take care to not ask us to confirm previous responses, i.e. no repeat of questions already covered. You can be sure our advice and opinions have not changed.

HHH, MD

1.you said "The time to conclusive testing isn't all that precise" does it means that 1 or two days doesn't matter  or if the test would have been positive it would have already ?

5. Sir, I still not gathered up the courage to conceive with my wife and it would be grat if you gave me final advice and I promise I would follow 

Thank you 

2. Risk at the time of exposure has no effect on time to reliable testing, or on the conclusive results at 6 weeks.

3. There is no difference in Dr. Hook's words compared with mine. Some times we use terms like "no risk" (theoretical or otherwise); and other times we write things like "no risk for all practical purposes". Could HIV in theory be transmitted by some of the exposure events you describe? Probably yes. Has it ever happened? Probably not. Don't split hairs-- just accept the fact that you were not at risk. And even if you were, your test results prove you were not infected. Therefore, the level of risk at the time of exposure doesn't matter. You could have told us you injected known HIV infected blood into your body:  our advice would be the same, that you did not catch HIV.

4. CDC itself doesn't provide care to patients and therefore doesn't do any testing, so they have not seen such patients. I cannot say whether this has ever occurred. If so, it is too rare to worry about.

5. If I were in your situation, I would never have stopped having sex with my wife. I suggest you resume your normal and usual relations with her.

Perhaps it will also interest you to hear that in the nearly 15 years of this and our preceding forum, with thousands of questions from people worried about catching HIV, not one has turned out to be infected. You will not be the first. If and when that finally happens, surely it will be someone with a truly risky exposure (like anal sex with an infected partner), and not the trivial exposure events of the sort you have asked about. And it won't be someone whose test remained negative 4+ weeks after testing! Please do your best to move on without worry, and without concentrating on every word or syllable of our replies. Just accept our advice that a) you were not at risk and b) your negative test results prove you were not infected.

1.I should resume my normal unprotected sexual relationship with my wife no ?

2. I hope there hasn't been anyone who's become positive after negative 4th gen tests after 6 weeks ?

3. Can you lastly explain me what would it mean that inter quartile range is 18 days and 99th percentile accuracy is 44.3 days...according to some study...refrence-BHIVA?

4. I hope in studies they (CDC or BAASH/ BHIVA) should be conservative themselves in deciding Window period and tests samples would not have been taken in accordance for checking that if 42 days and 45 days difference?