I am looking to enter a sexual relationship with an acquaintance who is 39. She told me that when she was 22 she had a wart, had it removed, and had no symptoms after that. From what I've read, this means it was likely strain 6 or 11 low-risk HPV.

Now, I realize that she likely cleared it in her 20's. However, what are the odds that she didn't? And if she didn't, and passed it to me, does that mean I will certainly get warts? Or does the wart causing strain not guarantee that you'll also get them? 

I understand how prevalent HPV is, and that I've likely had it and cleared it myself without knowing. I'm mostly concerned about getting it in my mid 30's and not being able to clear it, and potentially being stuck with warts.

I may be over analyzing this but I try to play it very safe with sex, and have never been faced with having to decide to be with somebody who I know actually had something. I do trust the person in general, and we've both been tested for everything else, but I understand that there is no test for this (low strain).

Thank you!

You are correct about "how prevalent HPV is" and that you have likely been infected. However, your potential new partner is no more likely to have HPV than any other random female partner you might meet. Having past warts probably does not significantly elevate the chance she has HPV now -- and if she does, it wouldn't matter. And anyway, the chance she still is carrying that strain 20 years later is very low.

"I may be over analyzing this..."  Yup, that's what you're doing. Let it go and stop worrying. A potentially rewarding and romantic sexual relationship is far more important than getting or having HPV, whether high risk, low risk, warts, etc.

I hope these comments are helpful. Let me know if anything isn't clear.

HHH, MD