I know you receive these questions often but thought I would ask for my specific situation.

1 Time oral encounter a week ago - I was giving oral to a man.  He said he was mostly straight and had no stds.  Small amount of ejaculate, most not in mouth.  I have read here this is considered zero/low risk, safe sex.

You have said 1 in 10,000 - do you believe the research supports that risk?  I am considering an RNA test at 2 weeks.

Thank you in advance.

With regard to performing oral sex on another man, not much has changed.  You do not know your partners status and statistically it is more likely than not that he did not have an STI and even less likely that he had untreated HIV. We continue to stand by the estimates that the risk for acquiring HIV, if your partner happen to have untreated infection  is less than one infection for every 10,000 sex acts.  While there are a small number of instances in which persons have been proven to acquire HIV from performing oral sex on an infected, untreated partner, these are very, very rare. I urge you not to worry. EWH

Dr. Hook:

Thank you very much.  So, if I could just follow up, for this type of exposure, would you have recommended PEP?

Would you recommend an RNA test?

And the final question I had is what is the reason that oral transmission is assessed to be so much lower than anal or vaginal?

What does the science tell is the explanation is?

Thank you again for the prompt answers and this can be closed after this.

I really see no need for an hour and a test or perhaps any testing at all.

The biological factors that contribute to acquisition of HIV infection are complex and include the type of mucosal surface involved, the amount of friction and exposure present, and whether or not secretions remain present following exposure amongst others. The data however are clear. The risk of acquiring HIV following giving oral sex to an infected partner is very, very low. EWH