A)  According to Dr. Christine Johnson's latest presentation, Genital HSV-1 shedding at 3 months out is 7% (or 25 days in a year right?) and at 2 years 1.3%  (4-5 days in a year). 

B)  As per statistics on transmission rates, there are none in relation to genital HSV-1. What we have is in relation to genital HSV2; from positive female to male that would be a transmission rate of 4% if no preventive measure is taken ( 4 uninfected men out of a 100 would get it). 2% if Condoms or meds are taken. 1% if both condoms & meds are taken. Can we can infer that for HSV-1 the transmission rate is lower?

3) On disclosure:

I am with you that disclosure in the case of GHSV1 is less about transmission and more about trust, and I understand that's an individual call. But then I wonder: oral sex is sex, so why don't professionals call oral herpes an STI? It's absolutely enraging that the few percentage of people who experience a genital outbreak have to carry the social and emotional burden of the diagnosis, while those who are aware they have oral HSV-1 (half the country) spread it around freely because they get to call it "cold sores", and therefore held to a different moral standard. 

It's outright unfair and makes makes me feel less inclined to disclose my genital HSV-1 status in a one-night stand situation (given 3 months will have gone by, no symptoms are shown, and condom/dental dam is properly used). Rant aside, my question here would be: 

Isn't it less likely that as a female genital HSV1 positive, I could pass on HSV-1 to a partner's oral or genital area, than it is for someone with Oral HSV-1 (with or without an outbreak) to pass it to a negative partner's genitals?

Thank you, and looking forward to meeting you one day.