[Question #9115] Risky encounter

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36 months ago
Hi, I’m gay and had drunken unprotected sex. I bottomed. I regretted it Instantly. The next day I had diarrhoea. At day 5 I began feeling unwell. Day 6 my lymph nodes were really swollen, I had puss on my tonsils, a bad fever and lasting headaches. The guy I was with tested with a finger prick test sent to a lab and it came back negative. I still panicked about his window period. 
My test came back negative for HIV but positive for Gonnorhea in the throat. I know it’s usually symptomless but could my illness have been that? I must've acquired it from an ex. It took a couple of months to get rid of it with different medication. 
 I decided to wait 6 weeks and made myself sick with anxiety before getting a 4th generation fingerstick test sent to a lab.  It was negative. 
I went to a sexual health clinic at day 56 where they drew blood from a vein. I was told it would be conclusive at 45 days. It was negative. But the nurse who informed me said I had to wait until 3 months. 
I waited with intense anxiety and at day 116 I used an INST test which came back negative. 
They also gave me prep and tested with blood from a vein for antibodies and p24 antigens. This also came back negative although unsure if it was classed as 4th generation. I thought this would be the end of it but I keep panicking about the symptoms I had.
I’ve never felt so unwell in my life but it could have been made worse from anxiety? All I know is I’ve never known my glands to swell so much. 
My nurse says the test is accurate but I can’t help thinking my symptoms were me seroconverting or reacting to the virus. 
Would I be testing positive at this point if the symptoms at 5-12 days were to do with HIV? I’ve seen you say the window period for 4th gen tests is 6weeks. Is this the same for every exposure? It just confuses me so much and worry’s me because of all the inconsistent information online. Even the nurses at the first sexual health clinic I tested at were giving me varied advice on window periods.

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Edward W. Hook M.D.
36 months ago
Welcome to the Forum and thanks for your questions.  I'll be glad to comment.  I had a little trouble with your timeline so let me be sure I'm working with the correct time frame- the encounter that has you concerned was more than 100 days ago, correct?

Your concern about being an unprotected bottom is appropriate- STIs are relatively common and among unprotected sexual encounters and with untreated HIV infected partners, receipt of rectal intercourse is associated with higher risks of infection.  On the other hand, most people do not have HIV and even with unprotective rectal intercourse, fewer than 1% of exposures lead to infection.  

If my timeline is correct, you can be confident that you were not infected. The nurse who recommended a three month test was out of date- 4th generation HIV tests provide absolutely conclusive test results at any time more than 45 days after an exposure.  

Regarding the window periods, as I said above, results of testing are conclusive when performed more than 45 days after an exposure.  With respect to your flu-like symptoms, such symptoms can be due to recently acquired HIV infection but typically occur between one and three weeks after exposure.  When persons experience the acute retroviral syndrome associated with recently acquired HIV (severe sore throat, fever. muscle and or joint aches), 4th generation HIV tests are always positive. The flu-like symptoms are due to the interaction of the host immune response with the virus which is the reason tests are always positive if symptoms are due to HIV.  Even in at risk persons, most flu-like symptoms are due to something other than HIV.  Studies have shown that when at risk persons seek care for flu-like symptoms only about 1% have HIV.  The rest have influenza and other common non-STI viral illnesses.

Bottom line, you can be confident that you did not acquire HIV from the exposure you describe and need not test further. Your results are conclusive.  EWH
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36 months ago
Apologies, I wrote that all out quite fast so may not have been very clear! 
 Timeline was as follows:

Day 1 - unprotected sex 
Day 4 - woke up in a night sweat 
Day 5 - fever and swollen glands 
Day 6 - completely delirious and the guy I had sex with tests negative with a 4th generation fingerstick self sample. 

Day 10- I test negative with a 4th gen fingerstick sample. 

Day 12- start feeling better but headaches last a while

Day 42 - negative with a fingerstick sample 

Day 56 - negative with blood draw from a vein (unsure what generation and clinic wasn’t sure on terminology  but the lady who took blood said conclusive at 45 days) 

Day 116 - negative INSTI rapid test 
DAY 116 - blood draw from a vein (test said ‘antibody: negative, antigen: negative’, what test would this be?) 

I can’t seem to get the illness I had out of my head! It’s the only thing right now causing me anxiety. I never want to have sex again. It’s really affected my mental health! 

So to sum up: The illness I came down with couldn’t have been seroconversion because I’m still testing negative over 100 days after it and tested negative during it? 

Generally how long would antibodies take to be detectable? I never took prep as I wasn’t sure how it all worked at the time. 









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Edward W. Hook M.D.
36 months ago
Your summary is absolutely correct. There is no possible way that your symptoms could have been due to HIV. Your tests now absolutely, incontrovertibly prove that you were not infected with HIV. It is time to get that out of your head and move on. I explained this earlier. Please reread my earlier response. EWH---
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36 months ago
Apologies If I repeat myself here. Health anxiety terrible at the moment. And I just need to hear it set in stone by an expert. Will be talking it over with a therapist tomorrow. 

1. The test I took at day 116 just said ‘Antibody: negative.  P24 Antigen: negative’. Does this mean it was a fourth generation test? 

2. Does the 45 day window period apply to any risk and is there a chance of my results changing? 

3. The test I took at day 56 used blood from a vein at a sexual health clinic and one nurse said conclusive at 45 days, another said 3 months. Would this have been 4th or 3rd generation since it was in a U.K. sexual health clinic? (Understandable if you’re unable to answer this one since you don’t live in the U.K.)

4. Are 4th generation fingerstick samples sent to a lab just as reliable as blood from a vein?

5: Now that it’s day 150 can I be sure that any symptoms I have are not due to HIV from the concerned exposure?




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Edward W. Hook M.D.
36 months ago
As you know, we provide up to 3 responses to each client's questions.  This will be my 3rd response, following which the thread will be close without further responses.  Straight to your questions:

1. Correct.  4th generation tests for HIV test for both HIV antibodies and the HIV p24 antigen.  Your negative tests PROVE that you did not acquire HIV
2.  The only thing that could change results would be taking medications for HIV.  NO other medications, supplements, etc would change the results.  Your results are conclusive.
3.  Repetitive.  Virtually all laboratory HIV tests used today are 4th generation.  Even 3rd generation antibody only tests are conclusive at 8 weeks.  As I said earlier, the nurse you spoke with was incorrect.
4.  Yes
5.  Correct.

I hope you will be able to move on.  Take care.  End of thread.  EWH
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