[Question #9242] chlamydia from oral exposure

35 months ago

I am sorry I am back but the only reason is because of the recent symptoms and I just want clarification and if I need to take any additional steps. My concern is my wife and I have had chlamydia for the past 3.5yrs ( after I received the handjob with saliva and the stripper also licked my penis briefly for 2 to 3 seconds). My wife tested negative during prenatal visit 19months after the incident. I then tested negative about 9 months ago after experiencing some burning only on urination for a few days. recently a few times over the last month i have had some small amount of clearish/cloudy looking discharge ONLY during a bowl movement but this concerned me. could this be an infection? i would like some clarification on the following:

1) what are the chances for 3.5years we have passed chlamydia back and forth and our test missed them because we didnt test at the same time? I see where is is "common" for one person to test negative and the other to test positive. so does that make our test conclusive if we tested during different time frames.

2) my other concern is My test missed my infection because i wasn't able to test for about 5 days after the burning stopped ( only lasted for a few days) and since the burning stopped already i had maybe cleared it by the time i tested?

3) has there ever been a document case of Chlamydia from oral sex? if so how often does it happen? like 1 and 1000, 1 and 10,000 episodes of oral sex?

4) my wife 5 months ago went to OBG for yearly pap, pelvic exam and the preformed a coloscopy ( has a past hpv infection ) dr said her cervix looked good and health and no worries other than the hpv they are going to check again next year. I know this wouldnt pick up chlamydia but does it help lean towards evidence she is free of any infection? ie no discharge was observed or irritation to the cervix etc.

I know this is mostly my anxiety but with all the recent symptoms the last year i am concerned. ( wife has breify yellow discharge a year ago, i

H. Hunter Handsfield, MD

35 months ago

Welcome back, but I cannot help as much as you probably would like and need. I reviewed your previous two threads with Dr. Hook. It is clear you are obsessed with the possibility you and/or your wife have chlamydia that explains some nonspecific symptoms that have other potential caues. You do not. I would bet that nobody in the world has proved to have chlamydia in the circumstances you have described here and in your previous threads. My replies are succinct.

In one of your previous threads, you incorrectly cited comments I made in other threads about chronic gastrointestinal colonization with chlamydia, perhaps explaining its apparent new presence in monogamous couples. That is a theory only, not a proved concept. If this happens, it undoubtedly is rare. And neither I nor anyone else has ever implied that it explains cases with chlamydia-like genital symptoms with negative test results. This whole concept is entirely irrelevant to your situation. To your specific questions:

1) There is no chance either you or your wife has chlamydia in these circumstances. Your negative tests are equally reliable regardless of whether you were tested at exactly the same time. How could that factor change the test results anyway??

2) If chlamydia were the cause of your symptoms, it would persist for at least a few weeks. That you were tested a few days after those symptoms improved still proves chlamydia wasn't the cause.

3) I remain unaware of any documented case in which someone with genital chlamydia acquired it by oral sex. Dr. Hook reviewed the reasons: chlamydia doesn't take hold in the throat very well, and the frequeency of positive pharyngeal chalmyda tests is very low; when positive, the organism or its DNA is present in very small amounts, probably too low to be transmitted. Given the zero documented oral to genital transmissions, I cannot even guess at a numerical risk if so exposed. Probably under one chance in millions.

4) Glad to hear your wife has excellent cervical health. This says nothing about whether she has ever had chlanydia or has it now. Her negative chlamydia tests are the key information.

Your recurrent genital symptoms are highly suggestive of chronic urethritis or prostatitis. I think I recall from scanning your previous threads that you have been with your wife for 20 years, which means you must be in your forties or older. At that age, I have never seen a patient with chlamydia that explained such symptoms. If you haven't seen a urologist, that would make sense. But you can be 100% certain that neither chlamydia nor any other STI is responsible.

I hope this helps move you off your obsession with chlamydia, orally transmitted or otherwise. It will have to be your last forum question about these issues. Thanks for your understanding.

HHH, MD

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35 months ago

I apologize for mis interpreting the Gi tract being something that has occurred rather than theory. I was mainly concerned about the oral exposure years ago and my wife and ping pong back in further and then clearing individual at time of test. Sounds like it’s no way possible?

Just to clarify. The discharge I have had has only happened about 2 to 3 times over the last 3 or 4 months and ONLY during a bowel movement. And the burning on urination was 9months ago and haven’t ever had it again. Does that still fit with uthertius and Prostatis? Also I am only 34yrs old ( wife and I have beeen dating since 14 but been married for 10) does my age change anything?

If I in fact do have one of these is it still safe to have unprotected sex with my wife? We usually do about 3 to 4 times a week.

I will follow up with a urologist.

Thank you and I appreciate your reply’s

H. Hunter Handsfield, MD

35 months ago

Thanks for these comments. I'm glad you better understand the issues about chlamydia and the GI tract.

Thanks as well for clarifying your symptoms. Expression of genital fluids during defecation is quite common -- more frequent in some men than others -- and is rarely a sign of infection or inflammation. Stool passing over the prostate gland and seminal vesicles, plus increased intra-abominal pressure from straining, can express semen or prostate fluids. If it is infrequent, only occurs at those times, and not accompanied by other symptoms (painful urination, for example) it doesn't mean anything is wrong. That said, in come cases it indicates prostate enlargement, which is so common as to be nearly considered normal as men age. Seeing a urologist is exactly the right plan. Most likely you will be reassured nothing important is wrong.

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35 months ago

Thank you so much for further explanation. I will follow up with a urologist. Just to be clear, still continue normal sex practices with my wife until then? Just making sure it’s ok even with the possibility of the possible prostate thing going on. I am assuming yes since you said no way this could be std related. Just clarifying.

Thanks again for all the replies

H. Hunter Handsfield, MD

34 months ago

You clearly have no STI, and based on all you have said, I hope you have continued unprotected sex with your wife. If not, you certainly should resume now.

That concludes this thread. This being your third on the same topic, let's make it your last on these topics -- OK? I hope the discussions have been painful. Best wishes and stay safe.

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