Hello, I'm going to follow up and possible leave the follow-up questions open for a few weeks as I navigate through this and try to understand more/make an informed decision. So, it seems based on your last reply, if there is a risk of an acute HIV infection - it would likely be from his last illness (sore throat, swollen glands, white tongue, chills/fever, muscle aches) which started on Feb. 6th and lasted 3-4 days. 

****Sorry I had a typo in the above, he started his most recent symptoms on March 6th that lasted for 3-4 days. So exposure could have been at the earliest Feb 27th or perhaps the week before on Feb. 20th, based on my understanding. 

Welcome back to he Forum.  On this occasion, I happened tp pick up your new question and will be responding.  I have reviewed your recent interaction with Dr. Handsfield and agree with all he said.  My sense is that you may be looking for reasons not to believe the information your partner has provided regarding your, so far, no risk encounters.  I worry that you may be over interpreting Dr. Handsfield' s comments.  Nothing about the exposure you describe suggests the ARS.  In response to your follow-up questions:---

Thanks! I DO tend to overthink things :) To confirm:

1.  I think you are overstating this.  His symptoms, particularly that they have come and gone really do not fit the description of the ARS.  In theory a single 3-4 day episode couild be the ARS but this is statistically unlikely.  If his illness was the ARS, tests for HIV would be positive from then onward.---

Hi, I wanted to follow up with my last reply. Unfortunately, I found out this man I was dating was actually lying to me about dating (and possibly sleeping with other women). So, luckily for me, we only had sex (with a condom) one time. I think there is low likely I contracted an STD since we did use protection. That said, the only possibly "risk"  (or maybe not?) was - I did masterbate him, then he put on a condom, then I masterbated him a little more with a condom on before intercourse.  From my understanding, this is no-low risk still (i.e. genital - hand - sex progression), but I'll likely still get STD in a few weeks as normal sexual health practice going forward, that I'm dating again. In your opinion, this was still low-risk correct? The condom did not break or fall off from what I could see / feel. I have symptoms (other than a cold!)...Thank you for help. 

You are correct, on all counts.  Masturbation of a partner is a no risk activity, even if that partner does happen to have an STI.  This is the case even when partners' genital secretions get on each other in the process.  Similarly, condom protected sex is safe sex and very low risk for acquisition of STIs.  Finally, I should add that in the unlikely circumstance that he has an STI (most persons with multiple partners still do not have STIs), transmission usually does not occur with a single encounter.  While I endorse you plan for testing for the peace of mind it will provide, I anticipate that the testing will show that you have not been infected.  ---

Thank you so much. Your guidance has been very educational and helpful. Take care!

Thanks for your thanks.  Glad we could help.  EWH---